The first modern copyright law dates to 1709, and was most certainly not a "take on property rights". Neither were pre-Statute of Anne monopoly grants.
I can find nothing to suggest a "religious and natural rights" motivation, nor any language about "intellect and hedonism".
Statute of Anne - which specifically gives a utilitarian reason 150 years before your "mid-1800s" estimate also predates socialism by a similar amount of time, and dates to a time were there certainly wasn't any major atheist influence either, so this is utterly ahistorical nonsense.
OK, maybe look at lockean influence previous to the Statute of Anne, then, or, you know, read the text?
https://avalon.law.yale.edu/18th_century/anne_1710.asp
"I. Whereas printers, booksellers, and other persons have of late frequently taken the liberty of printing, reprinting, and publishing, or causing to be printed, reprinted, and published, books and other writings, without the consent of the authors or proprietors of such books and writings, to their very great detriment, and too often to the ruin of them and their families: for preventing therefore such practices for the future, and for the encouragement of learned men to compose and write useful books; may it please your Majesty, that it may be enacted, and be it enacted by the Queen's most excellent majesty, by and with the advice and consent of the lords spiritual and temporal, and commons, in this present parliament assembled, and by the authority of the same;"
This is all about ownership, and protecting the state from naughty texts being printed, which was the actual driving force behind the legislation. There is nothing utilitarian in this.