Because a previous commenter wrongly said, "the Spanish made a point of seeking out all the Maya books". It wasn't "The Spanish" it were some individual actors clearly acting against "The Spanish" crown wishes.
If that is the case, why did the trial absolve him of all crimes and why did get consecrated as a bishop by the king of Spain?
If that is the case, why did the trial absolve him of all crimes and why did get consecrated as a bishop by the king of Spain?