I'd be curious to read more about that, because none of what you've written makes any sense to me right now. (Why would we want zero marginal tax on top earner who already get zero marginal utility for her money in the first place ?).
The zero marginal tax only strictly applies to the very last cent the extreme top-earner is expected to earn in the tax period. The idea is that at this theoretical extreme top-end tax bracket basically no one is paying infra-marginal taxes, hence the share of the incentive effect compared to the pure revenue effect is maximized. So you'll want to ensure that this extreme top-earner is only paying in lower, infra-marginal tax brackets, which have no incentive effect on her. This cannot be done literally because of randomness and uncertainty, but the broad effect of paradoxically lowering optimal marginal rates at the top end is nonetheless real.
The zero marginal tax only strictly applies to the very last cent the extreme top-earner is expected to earn in the tax period. The idea is that at this theoretical extreme top-end tax bracket basically no one is paying infra-marginal taxes, hence the share of the incentive effect compared to the pure revenue effect is maximized. So you'll want to ensure that this extreme top-earner is only paying in lower, infra-marginal tax brackets, which have no incentive effect on her. This cannot be done literally because of randomness and uncertainty, but the broad effect of paradoxically lowering optimal marginal rates at the top end is nonetheless real.