This study is validating a commonplace fMRI measure (change in blood-oxygenation-level-dependent or BOLD signal) by comparing it with a different MRI technique, one that uses a multiparametric quantitative BOLD model, a different model for BOLD derived from two separate MRI scans which measure two different kinds of signal (transverse relaxation rates), and then multiply/divide by a bunch of constants to get at a value.
I'm a software engineer in this field, and this is my layman-learns-a-bit-of-shop-talk understanding of it. Both of these techniques involve multiple layers of statistical assumptions, and multiple steps of "analysing" data, which in itself involves implicit assumptions, rules of thumb and other steps that have never sat well with me. A very basic example of this kind of multi-step data massaging is "does this signal look a bit rough? No worries, let's Gaussian-filter it".
A lot of my skepticism is due to ignorance, no doubt, and I'd probably be braver in making general claims from the image I get in the end if I was more educated in the actual biophysics of it. But my main point is that it is not at all obvious that you can simply claim "signal B shows that signal A doesn't correspond to actual brain activity", when it is quite arguable whether signal B really does measure the ground truth, or whether it is simply prone to different modelling errors.
In the paper itself, the authors say that it is limited by methodology, but because they don't have the device to get an independent measure of brain activation, they use quantitative MRI. They also say it's because of radiation exposure and blah blah, but the real reason is their uni can't afford a PET scanner for them to use.
"The gold standard for CBF and CMRO2 measurements is 15O PET; but this technique requires an on-site cyclotron, a sophisticated imaging setup and substantial experience in handling three different radiotracers (CBF, 15O-water; CBV, 15O-CO; OEF, 15O-gas) of short half-lives8,35. Furthermore, this invasive method poses certain risks to participants owing to the exposure to radioactivity and arterial sampling."
> [...] but the real reason is their uni can't afford a PET scanner for them to use.
This is incorrect, TUM has a PET scanner (site in German): https://nuklearmedizin.mri.tum.de/de/Patienten-Zuweiser/Pet-... Can't comment regarding the other observations.
Most studies in non-clinical populations afaik do not use 150 PET though? Afaik this is mostly used for clinical purposes. Could be wrong though.
This is why I love this site. You get input from so many specialized folks! I appreciate you contributing your expertise and I also appreciate you calling out the limits to that knowledge.
Two points I'm hoping you can help clarify:
> Researchers ... found that an increased fMRI signal is associated with reduced brain activity in around 40 percent of cases.
So it's not just that they found it was uncorrelated, they found it was anticorrelated in 40% of cases?
And you are suggesting that conclusion suffers from the same potential issues as these fMRI studies in general?
Like you mention, it seems to me if we wanted to really validate the model, we'd have to run the same experiment with two, three, or maybe even more different modalities (fMRI, PET with different tracers, etc).