> I think we can clearly see that the interpretation of our laws is extremely partisan at the moment, to the point that what exact text says is basically irrelevant
By “at the moment,” you mean “in the 1930s when the Supreme Court bent over backward to uphold FDD’s administrative state, right?” When they effectively overruled the Supreme Court’s 1926 decision in Myers v. United States, right?
Because the text of the constitution says this: “The executive Power shall be vested in a President of the United States of America.” Show me how you get from that to executive agencies exercising executive power independent of the President.
> Show me how you get from that to executive agencies exercising executive power independent of the President.
"[The president] may require the Opinion, in writing, of the principal Officer in each of the executive Departments"
Could you please explain why that clause is there if the president can already threaten to fire anyone who doesn't comply with their orders?