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A_D_E_P_Tyesterday at 12:05 PM5 repliesview on HN

Oh man, Stephen Wolfram and Jürgen Schmidthuber are probably fuming at the fact that this is called a "new" mathematical framework. It's all very old, and quite conventional, even popular -- not exactly the road not taken.

What the author did was use the Physical Church-Turing thesis, and Kleene's second recursion theorem, to show that: (1) If a universe’s dynamics are computable (PCT), and (2) the universe can implement universal computation (RPCT), then (3) the universe can simulate itself, including the computer doing the simulating.

That's basically all. And thus "there would be two identical instances of us, both equally 'real'." (Two numerically distinct processes are empirically identical if they are indistinguishable. You might remember this sort of thing from late 20th c. philosophy coursework.)

He also uses Rice’s theorem (old) to show that there is no uniform measure over the set of "possible universes."

It's all very interesting, but it's more a review article than a "new mathematical framework." The notion of a mathematical/simulated universe is as old as Pythagoras (~550 BC), and Rice, Church-Turing, and Kleene are all approaching the 100-year mark.


Replies

HPsquaredyesterday at 12:32 PM

I'm no mathematician, but doesn't this come up against Gödel's incompleteness theorem? My brain has that roughly as "If you have a system and a model of that system, but the model is also part of the same system, something something, impossible"

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ericpauleyyesterday at 12:32 PM

It’s also a little silly for the same reasons discussions of theoretical computability often are: time and space requirements. In practice the Universe, even if computable, is so complex that simulating it would require far more compute than physical particles and far more time than remaining until heat death.

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NoahZunigayesterday at 12:36 PM

Thanks for this great comment!

> He also uses Rice’s theorem (old) to show that there is no uniform measure over the set of "possible universes."

I assume a finite uniform measure? Presumably |set| is a uniform measure over the set of "possible universes".

Anyway if I understood that correctly, than this is not that surprising? There isn't a finite uniform measure over the real line. If you only consider the possible universes of two particles at any distance from eachother, this models the real line and therefore has no finite uniform measure.

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bsenftneryesterday at 1:35 PM

Okay, here's the thing: this is creating revenue, this is fascinating literature for a huge class of armchair scientists that want to believe, want to play with these mental toys, and are willing to pay for the ability to fantasize with ideas they are incapable of developing on their own. This is ordinary capitalism, spinning revenues out of sellable stories.