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rnhmjojtoday at 2:32 PM1 replyview on HN

No, because x/y is just an arbitrary operation between x and y. Here you're assuming that 1/x is the inverse of x under *, but it's not.


Replies

orbifoldtoday at 3:37 PM

I mean in a normal math curriculum you would define only the multiplicative inverse and then there is a separate way to define fraction, if you start out with certain rings. It is kind of surprising to me that they did a lazy definition of division.