So, back to the thread at hand: to your mind is this more often than when the law is working properly or less?
because it has been claimed in this subthread that the law is applied unjustly nearly 100% of the time.
The objection seems to be to your claim without caveat that plea bargains are meaningfully "due process".
I don't see any such claim, but the idea that prosecutors correctly identify the perpetrator in 98% of cases is obviously pure fantasy.