A poor person today has a better standard of living than a rich person in the 1700s
That seems improbable unless they, say, own hundreds of slaves, travel extensively in Europe, never want for food or alcohol, own multiple houses, etc.
Eg: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peter_Manigault
No they don't. I don't live in a mansion with dozens of rooms, servants and footmen.
That seems improbable unless they, say, own hundreds of slaves, travel extensively in Europe, never want for food or alcohol, own multiple houses, etc.
Eg: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peter_Manigault