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alistairSHyesterday at 3:42 PM4 repliesview on HN

Even better, in the US, the police have zero obligation to actually protect anybody from crime (unless that person is in government custody). The courts have upheld this time and again.


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Auncheyesterday at 5:49 PM

> the police have zero obligation to actually protect anybody from crime

This gets misrepresented on the Internet all the time. What this really means is that you can't sue the city for incompetent policemen, which is the case in basically every country. That only punishes the taxpayers after all. What is different about other countries is that they are much better at firing incompetent police.

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JasonADruryyesterday at 3:50 PM

Per the DOJ, there's also this:

>An officer who purposefully allows a fellow officer to violate a victim's Constitutional rights may be prosecuted for failure to intervene to stop the Constitutional violation.

>To prosecute such an officer, the government must show that the defendant officer was aware of the Constitutional violation, had an opportunity to intervene, and chose not to do so.

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mothballedyesterday at 3:51 PM

Which wouldn't be so bad, if it wasn't for the fact they do have an obligation to stop anyone from protecting other people from crime (see Uvalde, where orders from above were to block parents from saving their children).

NoMoreNicksLeftyesterday at 3:49 PM

> (unless that person is in government custody)

Someone please correct me, but do they ever much bother to protect those in custody?

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