alt Hacker News> Then the next question is why does wealth, in practically all industrious countries seem to distribute disproportionally and not uniformly?
It's simply because money is compoundable. The more money you have the more you can make, and the more you make means less other people have.
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There's a finite amount of money. There's not a finite amount of wealth.
Having lots of wealth does not mean other people have less. If that were the case, there'd be as much wealth today as there was 1000 years ago. Making a company and having it valued at whatever value, does not remove that amount of wealth from other people.
Is compounding interest why Jeff Bezos is rich? Or is it because you get three Amazon deliveries a day?
"U.S workers just took home their smallest share of capital since 1947"
https://fortune.com/2026/01/13/us-workers-smallest-labor-sha...
OK that's one thing, but still there are many new billionaires that didn't exist a few decades ago, let alone a few years ago. Why did they become billionaires and the wealth didn't distribute over a much larger group?
> and the more you make means less other people have
This is a false zero sum view of wealth that is unfortunately all too common.