Should it not be available with a valid court order as well?
Slavery also took advantage of valid court orders. “Because it’s the law” is not enough. Our rights should always be the biased stance.
Why? What is the rationale? Unless of course you subscribe to the idea that anything goes as long as a court decrees it, in which case there’s nothing to debate really.
Slavery also took advantage of valid court orders. “Because it’s the law” is not enough. Our rights should always be the biased stance.