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srcreighyesterday at 9:38 PM1 replyview on HN

This is incorrect. The set paradox it’s analogous to is the inability to make the set of all ordinals. Russel’s paradox is the inability to make the set of all sets.


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kibwenyesterday at 10:18 PM

Since we're being pedantic, Russel's paradox involves the set of all sets that don't contain themselves.

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