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lelandbateyyesterday at 8:44 PM2 repliesview on HN

No, it's because their model puts dollar values on the labor contributed by non-working adults w/r/t raising children. So in that case, it could be that 1adult1child is slightly higher because of the need to pay for childcare, while the food/insurance/clothing etc of the additional adult in 2adult1child is offset by the fact that the non-working adult will conduct childcare and thus that expense goes away.


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matuszegyesterday at 10:16 PM

But then why is the number higher for 2adult1child (1 working) when compared to 2adult1child(both working). wouldn't child raising costs get added back in once both are working?

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skulkyesterday at 8:47 PM

right. kind of obvious in hindsight.