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chromeheartstoday at 3:09 PM2 repliesview on HN

Old english using "ne" as a negative concord is definitely borrowed from the french right?


Replies

dddgghhbbfblktoday at 3:48 PM

No, Old English is pre-Norman invasion. I think you have (understandably) misunderstood what a "negative concord" means--it's when a double negative is still a negative, ie multiple negative elements agree with each other rather than cancel out. Like "I didn't hear no bell". A lot of languages are like this (eg Spanish).

In the OP article the sentence has both this "ne" and also a "never"

canjobeartoday at 3:21 PM

It goes all the way back to Indo-European. There wasn’t much French influence on English before the Norman invasion.