I might be interpreting wrong, but doesn't IPv6 also have a "implicit bridge" for IPv4?
It's not automatic, there were many proposed and utilized mechanisms for autodetecting translation servers and so on. By now though, if you want IPv6, you order real IPv6, and don't need some translation.
If it does that's great, but why couldn't I connect to IPv6-only services back when my ISP was IPv4 only?
It's not automatic, there were many proposed and utilized mechanisms for autodetecting translation servers and so on. By now though, if you want IPv6, you order real IPv6, and don't need some translation.