alt Hacker NewsWall Street places a value on sales, on the assumption that the sale means a customer had the money and the desire to buy the company's goods. In this case, OpenAI had the desire but not the money---Nvidia basically gave them the money to buy the product. So that "sale" should be devalued in the market. What if Nvidia paid more for the stock than the chips were worth? Now they're essentially paying people to buy their product and hiding the bribe in an equity deal by overvaluing the customer. The market sees the big growing sales number and buys Nvidia stock on the assumption that the growth is organic. It also sees Nvidia putting a big valuation on OpenAI, driving up that company's value at well. At some point, OpenAI ends up with more chips than it needs and Nvidia ends up holding a bunch of overvalued OpenAI stock instead of cash. And both stocks eventually crash as a result.
Does that clarify the situation?
Not really. Or rather I think we both agree and disagree. Dysfunction is always possible (that's why we have regulation) and if you want to make a case that what happened between OpenAI and Nvidia ought to be against the rules that could certainly make for an interesting discussion.
However it's not at all uncommon for large sales agreements to come with additional strings attached. On its face I don't see how this example is any different.
If my company wanted to barter with another company to exchange equity for infrastructure how would you expect that to be reported? Did this situation differ from that expectation?
> What if Nvidia paid more for the stock than the chips were worth?
I'm not sure. It's an interesting question. Were the unit prices (ie chip and stock quantities) made public?