I'm confused. What's your point?

Obviously economies that rely largely on second hand technology are going to have old technology. Much of Africa is in this bucket. But looking past the extremes, India is at nearly 80% right alongside Germany. They fall in very different average income brackets. So the correlation isn't tight.

I can't see any value in pointing out vague correlation between income and proliferation of a new technology. It's the most obvious of observations.