It is not determined by the derivative, it's the antiderivative, as someone else mentioned. The derivative is the rate of change of a function. The "area under a curve" of the graph of a function measures how much the function is "accumulating", which is intuitively a sum of rates of change (taken to an infinitesimal limit).

If I tell you I have function f with f(a) = 10 and on it's path from a to b, the graph first increaes by 5 units then by another 10, and then later on drops by 25 units, you can immediately deduce that f(b) = f(a) + (+5 +10 -25) = 0. The fundamental theorem of calculus uses the same concept:

To see why \int_a^b f(x) dx = F(b) - F(a) with F'(x) = f(x),

we replace f with f' (and hence F with f) and get

\int_a^b f'(x) dx = f(b) - f(a).

Re-arranging terms, we get

f(b) = f(a) + \int_a^b f'(x) dx.

The last line just says: The value of function f at point b is is the value at point a plus the sum of all the infinitely many changes the function goes through on its path from a to b.

> there's still something mystical and unintuitive for me about the area under an entire curve being related to the derivative

the discrete version is much clearer to me. Suppose you have a function f(n) defined at integer positions n. Its "derivative" is just the difference of consecutive values

     f'(n) = f(n+1) - f(n)

     f(b) - f(a) = \sum_a^b f'(n)

The antiderivative at x is defined as the area under the curve from 0 to x, which the Riemann sum gives a nice intuition for how you can get from the derivative.

So to get the area under the curve between a and b, you calculate the area under the curve from 0 to b (antiderivative at b) and subtract the area under the curve from 0 to a (antiderivative at a).

At least that's my sleep deprived take.

There is some geometric intuition in wikipedia page for this theorem you may like :)

You meant antiderivative?