alt Hacker NewsI responded to your post above which said this:
> * The progression of prevalence of hEDS over the years has gone from 1/50K, 1/15k, 1/5k, to 1/500 which is insane.
The prevalence of hEDS is not 1/500. I am not using outdated criteria, I am using the currently accepted numbers.
I'm really not interested in this conversation where you introduce conspiracy theories or try to act like you were talking about different conditions.
You seem to be stuck on this point. We agree that going by the 2017 diagnostic criteria for hEDS people are only diagnosed at a rate of 1/3100 to 1/5000.
But I ask;
* What’s the prevalence of HSD?
* Is there a meaningful difference between hEDS and HSD, i.e. how does one tell them apart except by severity?
* And would a history of 1/150K (1960s) to 1/50K (1980s) to 1/15K (1990s) to 1/5K (2000s) not suggest a prior history of under diagnosis? How can you be so sure that this time they have it right?