alt Hacker News> Respect for property rights is highly correlated with prosperity and that includes prosperity for those without property.
I think that this sounds good and is a sensible hypothesis, but it's far from clear to me that the corollary of prosperity for those without property is true in practice.
Why? Do the riches cities have the poorest poor or is it generally the richest cities have the both the richest poor and the most support for them.