>Every finite set of points in the Euclidean plane that is not collinear has a line that passes through exactly two of the points.
Isn't this a tautology?
The problem definition states that the set of points is in Euclidean space, which from Euclid's Axioms means we can draw a line between any two points. The set of points is defined to be not collinear, thus we cannot draw a line passing through more than two of them. This is just simple logic.
"The set is not collinear" here means "there is no straight line passing through all the points simultaneously", not "there is no straight line passing through some three points".
That is not what was meant. Here is a better rephrasing:
Let X be a set of points not all of which are collinear. Then, there are two points a, b in X such that the line l passing through X only passes through a and b.