Exactly, that's only one-party consent
The operators of the phone system are consenting to the call being recorded by informing you that the call is being recorded. You are consenting to the call being recorded by continuing with the call.
How is that not two party consent?
Laws are different in different jurisdictions, but often the law only requires notification, not consent.
The operators of the phone system are consenting to the call being recorded by informing you that the call is being recorded. You are consenting to the call being recorded by continuing with the call.
How is that not two party consent?