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semiquaver • yesterday at 9:01 PM • 1 reply • view on HN

No, the UK’s equivalent law specifically requires human intent and mens rea:

https://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1990/18/section/3 (1b.)

https://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1990/18/section/1 (1c.)

I’m told that the UK is a relatively authoritarian country where citizens have no real rights, so perhaps it can be charged anyway, but the plain language of the statute would seem to bar it.


Replies

sscaryterry • yesterday at 9:55 PM

> Unauthorised acts with intent to impair, or with recklessness as to impairing,

Can you see the ", or with recklessness as to impairing".

Edit: You seem troubled. The UK is not like you describe at all. We do not have ICE running around. Instead, we have the opposite problem.