It is my impression that the topic is being constantly rehashed precisely because the effects of GLP-1s are observed to be significantly more pronounced than what can be attributed to the weight loss alone.
I see. So, instead of
"GLP-1s cause an improvement in cardiovascular health"
if you said
"GLP-1s cause an improvement in cardiovascular health more than as would be expected by equivalent weight loss"
would that be more specific? Is this right?
I see. So, instead of
"GLP-1s cause an improvement in cardiovascular health"
if you said
"GLP-1s cause an improvement in cardiovascular health more than as would be expected by equivalent weight loss"
would that be more specific? Is this right?