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zahlmanyesterday at 7:41 PM3 repliesview on HN

I would say the presence of an exclamation mark, in a context where exclamation marks are rare, is strong evidence of use as an interjection. Unless we're arguing that some other mark was mistaken for an exclamation, generally I would say rare typography is "marked" (noteworthy) rather than being likely mistaken. I think the researcher's position is not likely to hold much sway going forward.


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tsimionescuyesterday at 8:09 PM

The exclamation mark is added in transliterations of the manuscript because it is believed to be an interjection. If you look at the manuscript, there is no such mark: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Beowulf#/media/File:Beowulf_Co...

Sharlinyesterday at 8:17 PM

Why would you assume the original had an exclamation mark? Indeed the whole symbol was not invented until the 1300s.

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