This is very obviously an AI generated comment which is against the guidelines.

Why didn't you use log-scale? It seems like the obvious call.

IMO the first graph would make a lot more sense when plotted in log scale.

Also this way of framing "As of February 2026, the US dollar has lost 96.9% of its purchasing power relative to January 1914. This means that $100 in 1914 would buy only approximately $3.05 worth of goods today" is of course math-correct but difficult to understand intuitively.

I think it makes more sense to explain it in the opposite direction or in both directions: "$100 in 1914 would buy only approximately $3.05 worth of goods today, or equivalently, $100 in 1914 is worth ~ $3278 nowdays (because 100 / 3.05 ~= 32.78 "

This also makes it easier to understand that the term "millionaire == person that has 1 million USD" only makes sense around 1914, because the equivalent amount of wealth nowdays would be "millionaire == person that has 32 million USD"

Anyways, I liked a lot this visualization https://mlde8o0xa4ew.i.optimole.com/cb:VNTn.d9a/w:auto/h:aut... that visualizes the compression in time of the big value changes.

Pretty close to the 80/20 rule of thumb.

Take my downvote, clanker.

I'm not really convinced this data falsifies the narrative of a slow erosion. It's just the Pareto principle in action. I bet if you graphed the erosion of a hill you'd see the same pattern.

Really not interesting analysis. Four "concentrated episodes" totaling 30 years, hardly "concentrated episodes", especially when you have a "concentrated episode" that lasts for fifteen years. It's extremely unsurprising there are periods of inflationary growth that's higher, and some lower.