> FWIW, I think this is the same as saying "iff it is bounded and has finite discontinuities".
It is not: for example, the piece-wise constant function f: [0,1] -> [0,1] which starts at f(0) = 0, stays constant until suddenly f(1/2) = 1, until f(3/4) = 0, until f(7/8) = 1, etc. is Riemann integrable.
"Continuous almost everywhere" means that the set of its discontinuities has Lebesgue measure 0. Many infinite sets have Lebesgue measure 0, including all countable sets.
Ah, thanks for the clarification! Would it have been accurate then to have said:
"iff it is bounded and has countable discontinuities"?
Or, are there some uncountable sets which also have Lebesgue measure 0?