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mjdvtoday at 11:08 AM1 replyview on HN

> FWIW, I think this is the same as saying "iff it is bounded and has finite discontinuities".

It is not: for example, the piece-wise constant function f: [0,1] -> [0,1] which starts at f(0) = 0, stays constant until suddenly f(1/2) = 1, until f(3/4) = 0, until f(7/8) = 1, etc. is Riemann integrable.

"Continuous almost everywhere" means that the set of its discontinuities has Lebesgue measure 0. Many infinite sets have Lebesgue measure 0, including all countable sets.


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emacdonatoday at 11:14 AM

Ah, thanks for the clarification! Would it have been accurate then to have said:

"iff it is bounded and has countable discontinuities"?

Or, are there some uncountable sets which also have Lebesgue measure 0?

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