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nonethewiser • today at 3:39 PM • 2 replies • view on HN

We have to at least accept there is a sort of natural, physiological baseline. There has been strong evolutionary pressure on male orgasm because it is necessary for reproduction.

The article says:

>Men’s orgasm rates ranged from 70% to 85%, while women’s ranged from 46% to 58%.

The article does recognize there are "physiological" factors but omits it from their conclusion:

>This study revealed enduring disparities in orgasm rates from sexual intercourse, likely resulting from many factors, including sociocultural norms and inadequate sex education.

The gap remaining across ages would be consistent with physiological factors dominating.

I think it would be interesting to figure out what this natural baseline was. If you could take out all social factors and see the percentages. I imagine it would be far more skewed.


Replies

schiffern • today at 5:35 PM

  >The gap remaining across ages would be consistent with physiological factors [being non-zero].
If a gap remains, that indeed would be consistent with the hypothesis.

Whether or not the gap that actually remains is consistent (let alone causal) cannot be determined from these limited data.

Subtle difference in wording, big difference in meaning. The former is correct, but many readers will "upgrade" it to the latter, stronger claim.

snovymgodym • today at 5:31 PM

Despite recent social developments, the tendency in academia and "polite society" is still to dance around or engage in pretty blatant doublespeak when it comes to anything that sounds like bioessentialism.